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I_am_John_Galt said:You are ignoring the militarism, police-state mentality and acute anti-Semitism (pretty much) unique to post-WW2 "radical" Islam: there are degrees of authoritarianism in Islam, none of which (except the one under discussion) approach the malevolent tyranny that is suggested by using the term "Islamofascism." Moreover, I discern a pretty big difference between allowing 'people of the book' "Dhimmi" status and wiping tem off the face of the earth.
Police state and Militarism? Are you referring to Saudi Arabia? The Wahabbi alliance with the House of Saud has being doing a fine job of this before the coming of the Europeans.
Afghanistan under the Taliban as Islamofascists? Not quite - the Taliban was a curious blend of Indian Deobandian thought (focusing on morality and the lack of it in modern Islam), imported Whabbism as a legacy of fighting the Soviets (which emphasises a puritanical interpretation of Islam), and the harsh punishments of the traditional Pashtunwali code. No reference to Mussolini or Mein Kampf here.
Iran? Are you going to present a neat case saying that the Ayatollah needed European political thought in the 1930's and 1940's to help give his worldview enough of a grounding to take the country over? Please, not everything has to be connected to the West in some way, shape or form.
The enemy is widespread in both his objectives and his outlooks (it is indeed "networked" - the "terrorist/insurgency NGO"), so what is "the one under discussion"? I've pointed to the words of Osama bin Laden and the writings he relies on the reinforce his ideas as well as highlighting notions which have strong precedence in Islam, and you've only returned with a few obscure political figures and movements from the 1940's. If you really do think that bin Laden is a fascist, you are going to have to give me a better argument than that.
As well, I'm not sure where you are getting the notion that militarism and the police state are something new to Islam and that it is grounded in Western influence (this seems like the typical message of some lame ass neo-con pundit). Islam has been militant since Muhammad returned to Mecca - the speed, scope and force of the expansion of the Caliphate was rivaled only by the Mongols in history. As well, Islamic rulers have been just as prone as anyone else in history in instituting autocratic regimes that smack of the defintion of "police state" - read of the decline of a multicultural al-Andalus under the harsh rule of the Almoravids and the Almohads from North Africa.
As for anti-semitism, see below.
al-Husayni (and others) imported European anti-Semitism (and other fascist ideals) that first manifested in the pogroms in Algeria, then the Farhud, and later in Libya and Iraq:
The examples you cite are all around WWII, when (surprise of surprises) the German's were politically courting movements to undermine the British. Is it no surprise that many would undertake Anti-Semitic acts to curry favour with a German Army that was figured to be the overlord quite quickly. Are you really trying to convince me that much of what we see is somehow related to WWII?
I have no doubt that the current problems between Islam and Judaism have some roots in the Nazi influence of the 1940's, but I seriously doubt that this influence is enough to make the anti-Semitic trends in many current threads of Islamic thought to be mere extentions of National Socialist Anti-Semitism (which has its own roots in Germanic history). Again, the use of the term Fascist links Islamic anger and hatred towards Jews to that of the Nazis, which to me makes erroneous and inaccurate links and obfuscates understanding and ideas of causality (and hence, the solution). Are we to fight anti-Semitism in the Middle East by showing that they had no complicity in Versailles and that the House of Rothschild were instrumental in the Industrial Revolution?
I find it rather difficult to believe that those ideas suddenly disappeared while simultaneously an incredibly totalitarian, violent and anti-Semitic strain of Islam (that no-one has any memory or record of) was spontaneously 'rediscovered'.
I'm not sure where you are getting the "spontaneously rediscovered" bit from. Any reading of the last 100 years of history in the Middle East lays it out clear that tensions between the two began to arise with the spread of Zionism and the conflict that arises out of the notion that Israelis wish to carve a state out of land that has been in Muslim hands (with a few interuptions) for 1400 years. This was not the first time this occurred in the relationship between Islam and Judaism - read about Sabbatai Sevi and the call for the return of the Jews to Israel and how that fared with the Ottomans.
The Nazi's obviously added a catalytic affect to the situation (just as the Holocaust no doubt served as a catalytic affect for Zionism), but I would in no way point to it as the root cause (just as National Socialism is not the root cause of Zionism either).
Into this gradual growth of animosity, add the most important catalyst, Israel "spontaneously" forming in 1948 with the partitioning of Palestine and in quick succession, delivering an ass-kicking to the Arab states on multiple occasions. Combined with the Palestinian/Israel issue that has been a problem for all involved since Day 1, and it easy to see that Anti-Semitism in Islam is not simply something inherited from a frothing National Socialist. Listen to the rantings of Islamists against Israel today - the notion of Crusaders and Palestine obviously underline that the anti-semitism of Islamic strains of thought are their own and not borrowed from somebody else.
Irregardless of its roots, it is sad to see that Islam, which had largely shielded Judaism from the persecution in Europe by Christianity for over a millenia, has been replaced by the seething and irrational hatred that we see today. Hopefully, we will be able to turn back the clocks, but it sure won't be easy.