CountDC said:
so where is the real difference? Regardless of those quotes what will happen is you will go to court, fight over everything, try to prove what is joint property and what isn't and then a judge will rule.
I see it going in most cases as:
Judge I bought the Xbox out of my own money.
Judge he used our joint MasterCard to pay for it and I paid the bill from our joint bank account.
Judge rules - joint property.
The only real thing that your quotes is saying is that there is no automatic right to divide, you will have to go to court which in reality is what most people do anyway. I would be cautious of using a quote that states "usually" as that also means not always.
The other factor is you are quoting sources in regards to Ontario while I was discussing the military which does treat both the same and adheres to the court order if you separate/divorce.
so Basics - same thing rather CL or Married, you will fight in court, judge rules, pay the lawyer, lick your wounds and have the information relayed to the military for any action needed there. Basics not Fine Print.
And I still disagree.
If you bought a house while common-law, and the house is in your name, and your name ONLY. Then the house, 100% of it, belongs to you, and you alone, when you "separate".
If you bought a house while married, and the house in in your name, and your name ONLY, but then you get married, and you make 100% of the payments on the house (say you're a single income family), and then you divorce, your spouse gets 50% of the house.
Now, what the courts can do, and this is where it gets sticky, is award compensation during a common-law separation based on the assets become a "resulting" or "constructive" trust. Basically, if the spouse who doesn't actually own the house (or car, or time-share, etc) is making payments toward the enrichment of that property, then they
might be able to claim either their initial contributions, interest gained on the enrichment, or both. None of this is guaranteed, however. If the owning-common-law spouse clearly makes all the mortgage and maintenance payments, and the non-owning common-law spouse makes only pays the utilities and taxes, then they'd be hard-pressed to prove that their money had caused any "enrichment" in the value of the property.
Furthermore, they are also only gaining the right to have some of their contributions returned (or some interest gained because of their contributions). That's the key difference here. In a common-law separation you
might have a right to some
money. The actual ownership of the property itself does not get divided in any way, shape, or form.
Spouse A: "Judge, I want the car. I paid for it."
Spouse B: "Judge, we bought this together and the car is in my name."
Spouse A: "Judge, it was my money and my credit and I've been making all the payments, but yes, the vehicle is in Spouse B's name."
Judge: "Well, the car belongs to Spouse B; it is in their name, so she gets to keep it. But lets see if you should be entitled to some for of compensation... oh wait the car has depreciated over the pat few years and therefore your payments didn't generate any interest or capital gains in the property. Your "trust" in the vehicle has gained you zero interest, therefore, I'm awarding you this nice pen of mine..."